ITIL : ITIL Certification Question and Answers Part-I

 

1) What does the ‘C’ in ‘RACI’ refer to?

A. Communicate
B. Configure
C. Customer
D. Consult

2) Which is NOT a sub-process of capacity management?

A. People capacity management
B. Component capacity management
C. Business capacity management
D. Service capacity management

3) Which BEST describes the purpose of the CSI register?
A. To capture, record and prioritize all improvement opportunities
B. To store details of all component CIs and their interfaces
C. To be a central repository for all IT service management related information
D. To record details of all live services and their service targets

4) What is part of a configuration management system (CMS)?
1- Configuration records
2- Configuration management databases
3- Physical assets
4- Release plans

5) Which are objectives of problem management?
1- Eliminate recurring incidents
2- Minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
3- Increase visibility and communication of incidents
4- Provide a trigger for the raising of incidents

6)Which statement BEST describes the value of the service transition stage to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a catalogue of services?
B. It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality
C. It ensures the production of more successful service designs
D. It results in higher volumes of successful change

7)Which statement about Service Asset and Configuration Management (SACM) is FALSE?
A. The scope of SACM includes management of the complete lifecycle of every configuration item (CI)
B. Configuration baselines and versions are produced by SACM
C. SACM maintains an accurate and complete configuration management system (CMS)
D. All changes to Cis are authorized by SACM

8) Which list includes information that would be collected when any incident is first logged?
A. Unique reference number, escalation activity, incident priority
B. Unique reference number, incident priority, description of symptoms
C. Escalation activity, closure category, resolution date and time
D. Closure category, description of symptoms, resolution date and time

9) Which statement BEST describes a service request?
A. A request from a customer for a new service
B. A generic description for the many types of request for change (RFC) that are received by the IT organization
C. A high priority RFC from a senior manager
D. A generic description for the many different types of demands that are placed upon the IT organization by the users

10) Which is a supplier category?
A. Technical
B. Commodity
C. Customer
D. Resource

11) Which is an example of how service automation assists service automation assists service management?
A. Customers can employ more sales staff during peak business periods
B. The capacity of services can be adjusted to respond to respond to variations in demand
C. Requests for new services can be authorized by anyone in service management
D. The capacity of the service desk can be reduced to prevent users contacting it at busy times

12) What do customers NOT have ownership of when receiving value from services?
A. Specific costs and outcomes
B. Specific costs and risks
C. Specific risks and impacts
D. Specific outcomes and impacts

13) What must a service level agreement (SLA) define?
A. Legally binding contractual responsibilities or both parties
B. Legally binding contractual responsibilities of just the IT service provider
C. Key service targets and responsibilities of both the IT service provider and customer
D. Key service targets and responsibilities of just the IT service provider

14) Which BEST describes a situation in which the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is used?
A. Following a full change advisory board (CAB) to resolve any outstanding agenda items
B. During peak or holiday periods when emergencies are more likely to occur
C. In an emergency situation when it is not possible to convene a full CAB
D. Outside the normal working hours of the business unit

15) Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during design
B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To plan the resources required to manage a release

16) Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?
A. Capacity management
B. Governance
C. Service design
D. Service level management

17) Which tool helps with defining accountability and responsibility within processes?
A. A CSI register
B. A project charter
C. A RACI model
D. A communications plan

18) What are the three service provider business models?

A. Internal service provider, outsourced 3rd party and off-shore party
B. Internal service operations provider, external service operations provider, shared service unit
C. Internal service provider, external service provider, outsourced 3rd party
D. Internal service provider, external service provider, shared service unit

19) Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?

1.Core
2.Enabling
3.Special

20)Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results
B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

21) Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful

22)Which process or function is responsible for the Definitive Media Library and Definitive Spares?

A. Facilities Management
B. Access Management
C. Request Fulfillment
D. Service Asset and Configuration Management

23) Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?
A. Categorization
B. Detection
C. Prioritization
D. Escalation

24) Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure?

A. RACI model
B. Incident model
C. Continual service improvement (CSI) approach
D. The Deming Cycle

25) Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. Change management
C. Incident management
D. Service asset and configuration management

26) Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?
A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management
B. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
C. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration management
D. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfillment

27) What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem

28) Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation

29) What are Request Models used for?
A. Capacity Management
B. Modeling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests
C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remote
D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled

30) Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

31) Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM) activities
B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service

32) Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM) activities
B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service